14.7k views
1 vote
Explain how to determine if the two expressions are equivalent using x=6 and x=10

8x+40. 8(x+5)

User Leeoniya
by
5.2k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

if they're equivalent, when you plug in either 10 or 6 for x, they should both equal the same.

x=10, 8(10)+40=120.... 8(10+5)=120. so they equal. also test 6

8(6)+40=88. 8(6+5)=88

they are equivalent since they both equal each other, no matter what you plug in. reason being that the 8(x+5) is the factorized version of 8x+40

User Bogdan Savluk
by
5.0k points
4 votes

Answer:

By putting both values of x in the expression, it can be concluded that both expressions are equivalent.

Explanation:

The expressions can be evaluated to be equivalent by putting the values given

The expressions are:

8x+40 and 8(x+5)

Putting x = 6 in both


8x+40\ and\ 8(x+5)\\8(6)+40\ \ ; \ 8(5+6)\\48+40\ \ \ \ ; \ \ 8(11)\\88\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ ; \ \ 88

The values of both expressions are same on x=6

Now putting x = 10


8x+40\ and\ 8(x+5)\\8(10)+40\ \ ; \ 8(10+6)\\80+40\ \ \ \ ; \ \ 8(16)\\120\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ ; \ \ 120

The values of both expressions are same on x = 10

Hence,

By putting both values of x in the expression, it can be concluded that both expressions are equivalent.

User Danbahrami
by
5.0k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.