Answer:
By putting both values of x in the expression, it can be concluded that both expressions are equivalent.
Explanation:
The expressions can be evaluated to be equivalent by putting the values given
The expressions are:
8x+40 and 8(x+5)
Putting x = 6 in both
![8x+40\ and\ 8(x+5)\\8(6)+40\ \ ; \ 8(5+6)\\48+40\ \ \ \ ; \ \ 8(11)\\88\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ ; \ \ 88](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/o8xm7rdhzq0yegmml3fo8bb9smfygmwhn1.png)
The values of both expressions are same on x=6
Now putting x = 10
![8x+40\ and\ 8(x+5)\\8(10)+40\ \ ; \ 8(10+6)\\80+40\ \ \ \ ; \ \ 8(16)\\120\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ ; \ \ 120](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/6cwy156oyy2lixqjkosmfczxloxan3w85o.png)
The values of both expressions are same on x = 10
Hence,
By putting both values of x in the expression, it can be concluded that both expressions are equivalent.