188k views
3 votes
What is (-1) with a expont of 39 equal to

2 Answers

1 vote

Answer:

Since we are using the negative integer of -1, the answer would simply be -1. This is because 1 time any number is always going to be 1.

Explanation:

User Romaninsh
by
8.1k points
0 votes

Answer:

oh period

Explanation:

slay queen yaasss

User Stefano Magistri
by
8.8k points

Related questions

asked May 8, 2021 115k views
Georaldc asked May 8, 2021
by Georaldc
7.5k points
2 answers
1 vote
115k views
asked Apr 27, 2022 146k views
Aalhanane asked Apr 27, 2022
by Aalhanane
7.6k points
1 answer
0 votes
146k views