Question

When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

Answer 1

Explanation:

You are correct, it should either be ∫₁² (x)² dx or ∫₀¹ (x+1)² dx.