When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

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asked Mar 4, 2021 79.7k views

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When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral-example-1

Mathematics
college

Archeg asked

by Archeg

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Explanation:

You are correct, it should either be ∫₁² (x)² dx or ∫₀¹ (x+1)² dx.

BeauXjames answered Mar 11, 2021

by BeauXjames

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