2 Answers

Sigmatics · Answer 1 · 2021-08-29T12:34:26+0000

Answer:

The correct answers for both of them is -2 and 0.

Explanation:

I)

$(f\circ g)(2)=f(g(2))$

From the red graph, we can see that g(2) is 0.

Therefore, f(g(2)) is equal to f(0).

And from the blue graph, we can see that f(0) is -2.

Therefore:

$(f\circ g)(2)=-2$

II)

$(g\circ f)(1)=g(f(1))$

From the blue graph, we can see that f(1) is 0.

Therefore, g(f(1)) is equal to g(0).

And from the red graph, g(0) is 0.

Therefore:

$(g\circ f)(1)=0$

So, you got one correct. Nicely done!

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