Is parallel to ? Explain. Yes, because both lines have a slope of . Yes, because both lines have a slope of . No, because the slopes of the lines are not equal. No, because the slopes of the lines are

asked Jul 12, 2021 177k views

0 votes

5.1k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

2 votes

Answer:

C) yes, because both lines have a slope of 2/3

Explanation:

edg2020

5.4k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

6.0m questions

7.8m answers