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Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

User Kiana
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2 Answers

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That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence
User PoeHaH
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3 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

User Dan Rayson
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