Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

asked May 23, 2021 138k views

0 votes

by Kiana

6.0k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

4 votes

That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence

PoeHaH answered May 24, 2021

5.5k points

3 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

Dan Rayson answered May 28, 2021

6.3k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

6.6m questions

8.7m answers