Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

asked May 23, 2021 138k views

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by Kiana

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4 votes

That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence

PoeHaH answered May 24, 2021

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3 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

Dan Rayson answered May 28, 2021

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