Register
Did Chaucer show English people that their language need not be considered vulgar.
201k views
0 votes
Did Chaucer show English people that their language need not be considered vulgar.

User Gerold Meisinger
by
5.3k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

The Normans conquered the English in 1066 but let them keep their language. ... Chaucer showed English people that their language need not be considered vulgar.

User Pankaj Phartiyal
by
5.3k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

5.9m questions

7.7m answers

Other Questions

An antecedent is a noun to which a preposition refers. True False
List at least 3 ways Faustus hopes to save himself from the deal he made with the devil. https://vallejocity.owschools.com/media/o_en4cc_2016/3/eng4_new_links_dr_faustus_scenes_13_through_14.pdf the link
Which would be the BEST source of information if you were doing inquiry about the impact of the loss of bees?
Read the passage from My Antonia by Willa Cather. My Antonia During that burning day when we were crossing Iowa, our talk kept returning to a central figure, a Bohemian girl whom we had known long ago
Examine Macbeth and Lady Macbeth after Duncan’s murder. In what ways are they alike and different?
Link Copied!