Answer:
probability that Jorge makes a profit is = 0.46412
Explanation:
Solution:-
- The number of bets made on number "3", N = 170
- He bets on each number "3", k = $1
- The winning pay-off odds : $ ( 35 : 1 )
- The probability of getting number "3" on a spin, p = 1/38
- The total amount paid (C) for n = 170 bets on number "3" are:
C = N*k
C = (170)*($1)
C = $170
- The probability of getting a number "3" on a spin is independent for each trial.
Denote:
- The amount received per win = $ 35
- The number of wins = r
- So the minimum "N" number of wins must be enough to match loss.
Amount Win = Amount Loss
r*$35 = C
r*$36 = C
r = $170 / 36
r = 4.7222 ≈ 5 wins
- So the minimum amount of wins required by r = 10 to make a profit.
- Let a random variable "X" denote the number of times Jorge spins to get number "3" - Number of wins. The probability to get a number "3" on each spin is independent for each trial. Therefore X follows Binomial distribution.
- So, X ~ B ( N , p )
X ~ B ( 170 , 1/38 )
1 - p = 37 / 38
- So we need to determine that Jorge get number "3" at-least r = 5 times. Where the probability mass function for binomial distribution is given below:
So,
- So the probability that Jorge makes a profit is = 0.46412
Note:- The normal approximation to Binomial distribution may be a less cumbersome choice; however, care must be taken to verify the conditions for normal approximation i.e
N*p ≥ 10
With the given data, N = 170 , p = 1/38:
N*p = 170/38 = 4.4737 ≤ 10
Hence, the normal approximation is an invalid choice for the data given.