Register
Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does
67.4k views
4 votes
Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

User Shaggydog
by
7.9k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

There’s is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

It’s inverse does not have any x-intercepts

Explanation:

User Misagh Aghakhani
by
7.1k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.8m questions

11.4m answers

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
What is .725 as a fraction
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
i have a field 60m long and 110 wide going to be paved i ordered 660000000cm cubed of cement  how thick must the cement be to cover field
A dealer sells a certain type of chair and a table for $40. He also sells the same sort of table and a desk for $83 or a chair and a desk for $77. Find the price of a chair, table, and of a desk.
Link Copied!