Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does - QAmmunity.org

Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does

asked Dec 8, 2021 67.4k views

1 Answer

← Prev Question Next Question →

Search QAmmunity.org