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Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does
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Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

User Shaggydog
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1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

There’s is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

It’s inverse does not have any x-intercepts

Explanation:

User Misagh Aghakhani
by
5.0k points
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