93.3k views
0 votes
Answers?..............​

Answers?..............​-example-1

2 Answers

2 votes
Their all 1, because any power with a base of 1, will equal 1. It’s like doing 1x1x1= 1. 1 multiplied to itself will equal 1.
User Niklas P
by
8.1k points
2 votes
The first one is 1
The second one is 1
The third one is 1
User Onel Harrison
by
7.9k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories