menu
QAmmunity.org
Login
Register
My account
Edit my Profile
Private messages
My favorites
Register
Ask a Question
Questions
Unanswered
Tags
Categories
Ask a Question
Why did Europe not use Natives as slaves
asked
Nov 26, 2022
231k
views
5
votes
Why did Europe not use Natives as slaves
History
high-school
NeilNie
asked
by
NeilNie
7.7k
points
answer
comment
share this
share
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Please
log in
or
register
to answer this question.
1
Answer
6
votes
Answer:
Because they were used for selling
Step-by-step explanation:
Stephent
answered
Dec 1, 2022
by
Stephent
7.6k
points
ask related question
comment
share this
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.
8.5m
questions
11.2m
answers
Other Questions
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
What were the positive and negative effects of Egypt being imperialized by Britain.
Twitter
WhatsApp
Facebook
Reddit
LinkedIn
Email
Link Copied!
Copy
Search QAmmunity.org