Register
Why did Europe not use Natives as slaves
231k views
5 votes
Why did Europe not use Natives as slaves

User NeilNie
by
8.8k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

Because they were used for selling

Step-by-step explanation:

User Stephent
by
8.3k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

No related questions found

Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.5m questions

12.2m answers

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
Link Copied!