195k views
2 votes
I don’t understand this

I don’t understand this-example-1

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Statement 1: If JK and LM bisect each other then, they divide each other in 2 equal parts.

So,

JP = PK [Because of statement 1]

MP = PL [Because of statement 1]

∠JPM = ∠LPK [Because they are vertically opposite angles]

So, ΔJPM ≅ to ΔKPL [By SAS congruence criteria of triangle]

User Vinit Sharma
by
8.1k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories