Answer:
Option A is correct
Step-by-step explanation:
As we know
Inductive Susceptance = ½(pi)*f*L
Or Inductive Susceptance is inversely proportional to the frequency
Likewise conductive Susceptance = 2 (pi)*f*C
Conductive Susceptance is directly proportional to the frequency
When the frequency will reach the value zero, then the Inductive Susceptance will become infinite
Hence, inductor will dominate in determining the equivalent impedance of this parallel combination
Option A