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5 votes
Please simplify the following trigonometric identity.


\displaystyle(1)/(\sec\alpha-\tan\alpha)

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

cos a

---------------------

1 -sin (a)

Explanation:

We know that sec a = 1/ cos (a) and tan a = sin (a) / cos (a)

1

---------------------

1/ cos (a) -sin (a) / cos (a)

Multiply the top and bottom by cos (a)

1* cos a

---------------------

( 1/ cos (a) -sin (a) / cos (a)) * cos a

cos a

---------------------

1 -sin (a)

User Kitanotori
by
7.9k points
6 votes

Examining the question:

We are given the expression:


(1)/(Sec(\alpha)-Tan(\alpha))

We know from Basic trigonometry that:


Sec(\alpha) = (1)/(Cos(\alpha))


Tan(\alpha) = (Sin(\alpha))/(Cos(\alpha))

Simplifying the expression:

Replacing these values in the given expression, we get:


(1)/((1)/(Cos(\alpha)) -(Sin(\alpha))/(Cos(\alpha)) )

Since the denominator of both the values in the denominator is the same:


(1)/((1-Sin(\alpha))/(Cos(\alpha)) )

We know that
(1)/((a)/(b) ) =
(b)/(a), using the same property:


(Cos(\alpha))/(1-Sin(\alpha))

and we are done!

User Krassi
by
8.6k points
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