21.4k views
4 votes
Let g be a twice-differentiable function with g(1) = 7 and g(7) = 1 and let f(x) = g(g(x)). a) Justify why there must be a value c, where 1 < c < 7, such that g' (c) = −1. b) Justify that f′ (1) = f′(7) and that there exists a value n such that on (1,7) where f''(n) = 0

1 Answer

4 votes

Item a):

The Mean Value Theorem states that if a function f is continuous on the closed interval [a,b] and differentiable on the open interval (a,b), then there exists a point c in the interval (a,b) such that f'(c) is equal to the function's average rate of change over [a,b].


f^(\prime)(c)=(f(b)-f(a))/(b-a)

Applying this theorem in our problem, we have:


g^(\prime)(c)=(g(7)-g(1))/(7-1)=(1-7)/(6)=-(6)/(6)=-1

item b):

f(x) is given by the composition of g(x) with itself, therefore, we can calculate the derivative of f(x) by using the chain rule:


f^(\prime)(x)=g^(\prime)(g(x))\cdot g^(\prime)(x)

Then, evaluating this expression at x = 1 and x = 7, we have:


\begin{gathered} f^(\prime)(1)=g^(\prime)(g(1))\cdot g^(\prime)(1)=g^(\prime)(7)\cdot g^(\prime)(1) \\ f^(\prime)(7)=g^(\prime)(g(7))\cdot g^(\prime)(7)=g^(\prime)(1)\cdot g^(\prime)(7) \end{gathered}

Thus


f^(\prime)(1)=f^(\prime)(7)

Using the Leibniz rule, we can find the second derivative of f(x):


f^(\prime)^(\prime)(x)=g^(\prime)^(\prime)(g(x))(g^(\prime)(x))^2+g^(\prime)(g(x))g^(\prime)^(\prime)(x)

When those two terms are antisymmetric, the second derivative is equal to zero.

User Flazzarini
by
7.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories