I WILL MARK SOMEONE BRIANLIEST!!! SOMEONE HELP

asked Jan 15, 2022 135k views

15 votes

3.6k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

8 votes

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

$\because \: we \: know \: that \\ {2}^(0) = 1 \\ \\ \implies \: log_(2)1 = 0 \\ (if \: {a}^(m) = n \implies \: log_(a)n = m)$

JLTChiu answered Jan 20, 2022

3.1k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

3.5m questions

4.5m answers