150k views
0 votes
Let f: A ➡ B and g: B ➡ C be functions. Prove: (a)If g o f is one-to-one and f is onto, then g is one-to-one. (b) If g o f is onto and g is one-to-one, then f is onto. (c) Let A = {1, 2} and B = {a, b, c}. Let the functions f and g be f = {(1, a), (2, b} and g = {(a, 1), (b, 2), (c, 1)}. Verify that go f = l_A, and then explain why g is not the inverse of f.

User Aliva
by
8.3k points

1 Answer

1 vote

Final answer:

If g o f is one-to-one and f is onto, then g is one-to-one. If g o f is onto and g is one-to-one, then f is onto. The function g is not the inverse of f.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) If g o f is one-to-one and f is onto, then g is one-to-one:

To prove this statement, let's assume that g is not one-to-one. This means that there exist two elements b1 and b2 in B such that b1 != b2, but g(b1) = g(b2). Since f is onto, there exist elements a1 and a2 in A such that f(a1) = b1 and f(a2) = b2. Now, since g o f is one-to-one, it implies that (g o f)(a1) != (g o f)(a2), which means that g(f(a1)) != g(f(a2)). But we know that g(f(a1)) = g(b1) and g(f(a2)) = g(b2), which contradicts our assumption that g is not one-to-one. Therefore, we can conclude that if g o f is one-to-one and f is onto, then g is one-to-one.

(b) If g o f is onto and g is one-to-one, then f is onto:

Let's assume that f is not onto. This means that there exists an element b in B such that for every element a in A, f(a) != b. Now, since g o f is onto, it implies that for every element c in C, there exists an element a in A such that (g o f)(a) = g(f(a)) = c. But we know that f(a) != b for every a in A. Therefore, we can conclude that f is onto.

(c) Verification and explanation of g o f = l_A and why g is not the inverse of f:

The function g o f is given by (g o f)(1) = g(f(1)) = g(a) = 1 and (g o f)(2) = g(f(2)) = g(b) = 2. Therefore, we have (g o f) = {(1, 1), (2, 2)}, which is the identity function on A, denoted as l_A. Now, to check if g is the inverse of f, we need to verify if g o f = f o g = l_A. But we know that (g o f) = l_A, whereas (f o g) = {(a, 1), (b, 2), (c, 1)}, which is not equal to l_A. Therefore, we can conclude that g is not the inverse of f.

User FatBoyXPC
by
9.3k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories