Final answer:
To prove that (ϕf)′(β)=(f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)′(α), we consider (f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)′(α) and simplify it. Then, we substitute β with f⁻¹(α) in (ϕf)′(β) to show that (ϕf)′(f⁻¹(α))=(f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)(α).
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to prove the given statement, we need to show that (ϕf)′(β)=(f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)′(α).
To begin, let's consider (f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)′(α) and simplify it. We can rewrite (f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α) as (f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)(α). Since β=f⁻¹(α), we can substitute ϕ(α) with ϕf(β) in the expression. Thus, (f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)′(α) becomes (f⁻¹)′(ϕf(β))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)(α).
Now, let's consider (ϕf)′(β). Since β=f⁻¹(α), we can substitute β with f⁻¹(α) in the expression. Thus (ϕf)′(β) becomes (ϕf)′(f⁻¹(α)).
To prove that (ϕf)′(β)=(f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)′(α), we need to show that (ϕf)′(f⁻¹(α))=(f⁻¹)′(ϕf(β))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)(α). By substituting β with f⁻¹(α), we get (ϕf)′(f⁻¹(α))=(f⁻¹)′(ϕf(f⁻¹(α)))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)(α). Since f⁻¹ is an inverse, f⁻¹(f⁻¹(α))=α, which simplifies the expression to (ϕf)′(f⁻¹(α))=(f⁻¹)′(ϕ(α))ϕ′(α)/(f⁻¹)(α).