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Suppose (X, S, μ) is a measure space and f1, f2, . . . is a

sequence of nonnegative S-measurable functions. Define f : X → [0,
[infinity]] by f (x) = ∑[infinity]k=1 f_k(x). Prove that I know I can use
the MCT

User Matt Logan
by
8.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Final answer:

To prove that the function
f(x) = ∑k=1 f_k(x)n use the Monotone Convergence Theorem (MCT). The Monotone Convergence Theorem states that if we have a sequence of nonnegative measurable functions {f_n} and
f(x) = ∑n=1 f_n(x)able.

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove that the function
f(x) = ∑k=1 f_k(x) can use the Monotone Convergence Theorem (MCT).

The Monotone Convergence Theorem states that if we have a sequence of nonnegative measurable functions {fn} and
f(x) = ∑n=1 f_n(x)able.

The proof involves showing that for any positive integer m, the set x is measurable. This can be done by showing that x is measurable for each n, and then taking the union over all n.

User Sean Missingham
by
8.4k points
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