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Help:))?????????? What’s the answer???
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Help:))?????????? What’s the answer???

Help:))?????????? What’s the answer???-example-1
User Adarsh Chavakula
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1 Answer

8 votes
I think it would be 1/6 inches.
The LCM of 2 and 3 is 6. So you change the numerators. To go from 2 to 6 you multiply by 3 so multiply 1 and 3. The next is 3 times 2 is 6 so multiply 1 and 2. Then, your difference is 1/6 inches.
Help:))?????????? What’s the answer???-example-1
User Amit Erandole
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