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15 votes
15 votes
Christopher Columbus died in 1506, more than fifty years before de Las Casas came to the New World. Should he be held responsible for the actions of the Spanish that followed him? Why or why not?

User WPG
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1 Answer

20 votes
20 votes

Answer:

not really

Step-by-step explanation:

Due to that the Spainish monarchs are different from Columbus’s voyage. (Ferdinand and Isabella) The Portugués monarchs might have done something to brainwash the people in Portugal. Plus Columbus believe that the New world was Asia. So technically they wouldn’t mind about Columbus theory.

User Tomasz Onyszko
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