Benjamin believes that (1)/(2)% is equivalent to 50%. is he correct? why or why not?

Horatius asked Jun 2, 2023

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44 votes

Benjamin believes that
(1)/(2)

% is equivalent to 50%. is he correct? why or why not?

Horatius asked Jun 2, 2023

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17 votes

First, we convert 1/2% to a decimal.

$(1)/(2)\%=(0.5)/(100)=0.005$

Similarly:

Migas answered Jun 9, 2023

by Migas

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