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1 vote
The allele for a widow’s peak has complete dominance over the allele for a straight hairline (w). What is the probability of a man with a straight hairline (ww) and a woman with a widow’s peak (WW) having an offspring without a widow’s peak?

0 percent
75 percent
25 percent
50 percent

User Recek
by
8.9k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

D. 0 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

As the widow's peak is dominant over straight hairline (w). And the mother is homozygous recessive dominant for widow's peak. So, her all children receive one dominant W from their mom so they all will be having widow's peak.


User Ambroise
by
8.7k points
4 votes
The answer in here is the first one: 0 percent. We know this because 1 parent (the mom) has both WW alleles, all (100%) of the offspring will have the widow's peak.Since the answer asks "what is the probability of having an offspring without a widow’s peak?" the answer is 0.Hope this works for you my dear.
User Jim Ho
by
8.8k points
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