160k views
2 votes
Which best explains whether a triangle with side lengths 2 in., 5 in., and 4 in. is an acute triangle? The triangle is acute because 22 + 52 > 42. The triangle is acute because 2 + 4 > 5. The triangle is not acute because 22 + 42 < 52. The triangle is not acute because 22 < 42 + 52.

2 Answers

3 votes

Answer: The correct option is

(C) The triangle is not acute because 2² + 4² < 5².

Step-by-step explanation: We are to select the statement that best explains the type of the triangle having lengths of three sides as 2 inch, 5 inch and 4 inch.

We know that a triangle with side lengths a, b and c (c > a, b)is

(i) an acute-angled if a² + b² > c², and

(ii) an obtuse-angled if a² + b² < c².

For the given triangle,

a = 2 inch, b = 4 inch and c = 5 inch.

So, we have


a^2+b^2=2^2+4^2=4+16=20,\\\\c^2=5^2=25.

Since,


20<25\\\\\Rightarrow a^2+b^2<c^2,

so the given triangle is not acute, but obtuse.

Thus, the triangle is not acute because 2² + 4² < 5².

Option (C) is correct.

User GeorgieF
by
8.4k points
5 votes

Let


a=2\ in\\b=4\ in\\c=5\ in

we know that

If
c^(2) =a^(2)+b^(2) -----> is a right triangle

If
c^(2) > a^(2)+b^(2) -----> is an obtuse triangle

If
c^(2) < a^(2)+b^(2) -----> is an acute triangle

so

substitute the values


5^(2) > 2^(2)+4^(2) ------> is an obtuse triangle

therefore

the answer is

The triangle is not acute because
2^(2)+4^(2)< 5^(2)

User Kalyan Vedala
by
8.6k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories