87.4k views
22 votes
How do I simplify one 1 42/40

2 Answers

8 votes

Answer:

Turn the fraction into an improper fraction:
(82)/(40). Now simplify this. Your completely simplified improper fraction would be:
(41)/(20). This as a mixed number would be: 2
(1)/(20).

Explanation:

This is as simplified as it can get. My explanation is above. Hope it helps!!!

User RangerRanger
by
8.7k points
4 votes
I think your answer would be 2 1/20

Because if you take 1 42/40 that would a improper fraction .. so 42/40 would equal 1 2/40 which would simplify to 1 1/20 + the 1 so that’s how i got 2 1/20
User Vikum Dheemantha
by
7.2k points

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