Kay claims that dividing by 1/5 is the same thing as multiplying by 5. Is she correct? Explain why or why not.

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asked Mar 24, 2018 232k views

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Aspartame · Answer 1 · 2018-03-29T10:52:01+0000

Kay is 100% correct. Remember the rule? To divide by a fraction, invert the fraction and then multiply.

To divide 8 by 1/5, invert the fraction (which is 1/5) and multiply: 8*5/1 = 40.

Kay claims that dividing by 1/5 is the same thing as multiplying by 5. Is she correct? Explain why or why not.

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