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Kay claims that dividing by 1/5 is the same thing as multiplying by 5. Is she correct? Explain why or why not.
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Kay claims that dividing by 1/5 is the same thing as multiplying by 5. Is she correct? Explain why or why not.

User John Assymptoth
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Kay is 100% correct. Remember the rule? To divide by a fraction, invert the fraction and then multiply.

To divide 8 by 1/5, invert the fraction (which is 1/5) and multiply: 8*5/1 = 40.
User Aspartame
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