1/4” is the same as 2/8"

asked Sep 19, 2022 100k views

10 votes

5.3k points

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10 votes

Answer:

yes it is

Explanation:

all you do is 1 times 2 = 2 and 4 times 2= 8 they are equivalent

MrGott answered Sep 22, 2022

5.1k points

5 votes

Answer:

uhhh yeah it is

Explanation:

Mcphersonjr answered Sep 24, 2022

4.6k points

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