Register
Why did the ordinances of 1785 and 1787 provide public lands and funds for schools?
84.9k views
12 votes
Why did the ordinances of 1785 and 1787 provide public lands and funds for schools?

User Muirbot
by
5.9k points

1 Answer

8 votes

Answer:

It set up a standardized system whereby settlers could purchase title to farmland in the undeveloped west.The 1785 ordinance laid the foundations of land policy until passage of the Homestead Act of 1862.

Step-by-step explanation:

User Mgaert
by
5.6k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

5.7m questions

7.5m answers

Other Questions

In the mid-1700s, which industrializing nation was the dominant commercial power in the atlantic ocean?
The oldest known civilization in the Western Hemisphere is the
Why do you think Benito Mussolini and his appeal for a militarily powerful Italy were able to win such wide support in Italy in the aftermath of World War I?
Study the 14 century Persian image below what could one conclude about the Islamic world from this image?
Gandhi's main strategy to win independence from Britain was _____. Select the best answer from the choices provided. armed warfare careful, directed terrorism peaceful, passive resistance democratic campaigning
Link Copied!