154k views
2 votes
The inverse of f(x)=x^2 is also a function t/f

User Rajdeep
by
7.5k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The inverse of f(x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test: a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0) ).

User Richj
by
8.5k points
3 votes

The Answer is false.

the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse.Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.

User Anup GC
by
8.2k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories