154k views
2 votes
The inverse of f(x)=x^2 is also a function t/f

User Rajdeep
by
6.4k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The inverse of f(x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test: a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0) ).

User Richj
by
7.4k points
3 votes

The Answer is false.

the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse.Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.

User Anup GC
by
7.1k points