Need help asap please

asked Jun 13, 2022 187k views

23 votes

3.7k points

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6 votes

Answer:

$\displaystyle no$

Explanation:

We do not have enough information to use this theorem. We only have one side and two right angles marked. Hence, you have your answer.

I am joyous to assist you at any time.

Cain answered Jun 18, 2022

by Cain

4.4k points

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