Answer:
years to maturity:
Step-by-step explanation:
The market value will be the present value of the bons at 9.34% YTM
Present value of the cuopon payment will be an aordinary annuity:
C 40 (1,000 x 8%/2 payment per year
time n (unknow value)
rate 0.0934
Present value of the maturity, which is present value of a lump sum
Maturity 1,000.00
time n
rate 0.0467 (rate / 2 as there are 2 payment per year)
We know that:
PVc + PVm = Market price = 889.83
So we can build this equation:
Based on the values we are given, we solve for "n"
First, we work out the annuit y formula:
Then we do common factor:
![1.0467^(-n) * ( 1000 - (40)/(0.0467)) = 889.83 - (40)/(0.0467) \\](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/business/college/ufodm2jwt1urv9ndn7g8wagtzjm00u7lou.png)
We solve and leave this:
![1.0467^(-n) * 143,689507 = 33.29895075](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/business/college/1hzyu8we9l60vudfuvrpf6k3xsefbe78c5.png)
![1.0467^(-n) = 0.232098657](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/business/college/79gsaab7myqe3rvkmmqz2ci4kerkw0q2df.png)
We now apply logarthimic properties to sovle for n
![-n = (log 0.232098657)/(log 1.0467)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/business/college/l1x6xoocmzwqzb3usanhaedqtj41g343dz.png)
n = 32 These are semiannual payment, so we divide by 2 to convert to year:
32/2 = 16 years