Answer:
![-1.14 \cdot 10^(-3) V](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/1q3twlxtbio1fl3qv5a77l485c22o8bh0b.png)
Step-by-step explanation:
The induced emf in the loop is given by Faraday's Newmann Lenz law:
(1)
where
is the variation of magnetic flux
is the variation of time
The magnetic flux through the coil is given by
(2)
where
N = 6 is the number of loops
A is the area of each loop
B is the magnetic field strength
is the angle between the direction of the magnetic field and the normal to the area of the coil
Since the radius of each loop is r = 5.00 cm = 0.05 m, the area is
![A=\pi r^2 = \pi (0.05 m)^2=0.0079 m^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/q3tgpgje9fbaglk4adq6g4ltj6ujnwfxlj.png)
Substituting (2) into (1), we find
![\epsilon = - (d (NBA cos \theta))/(dt)= -(NAcos \theta) (dB)/(dt)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/17twdbz6unuo7zbvfu207ydkc0pb9ga917.png)
where
is the rate of variation of the magnetic field
Substituting numbers into the last formula, we find
![\epsilon = -(6)(0.0079 m^2)(cos 15^(\circ))(0.0250 T/s)=-1.14 \cdot 10^(-3) V](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/5jcz52un0i8aklqtzrz25h7k5jelitmzc1.png)