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Suppose that x≠0 and y≠0. We know from our work in this section that 1/x∙1/y is equivalent to 1/xy. Is it also true that 1/x+1/y is equivalent to 1/(x+y)? Provide evidence to support your answer.

User Flacnut
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1 Answer

10 votes

Answer:

No

Explanation:

Let's assume that x=2 and y=3.

1/2+1/3≠1/5

Also, when adding fractions, you cannot simply add the denominator. You have to make the denominators of all fractions the same and then add.

So, if you are given 1/x +1/y, you should get (y+x)/xy, not 1/(x+y)

User Mkayaalp
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