1.3k views
2 votes
1× 1 ÷58 +26=........​

2 Answers

3 votes

First of all 1*1 = 1 because a number multiplied by 1 is always itself. We then have to divide 1 by 58 is 0.017 and that +26 is equal to 26.017. Lastly, we have our answer 26.017 or if you wanted it as a fraction 26 1/58!

User Lazhar
by
7.7k points
4 votes

Answer:

= 117/58

Explanation:

User Amandeep Kaur
by
8.1k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories