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Please help! It's due soon.

the picture is the only thing that matters.

Consider these functions:

For x ≥ 0, the value of f(g(x)) is __
For x ≥ 0, the value of g(f(x)) is __
For x ≥ 0, functions f and g __ inverse functions

Please help! It's due soon. the picture is the only thing that matters. Consider these-example-1
User Cyberflow
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2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

X

X

are

Explanation:

User Chris McAtackney
by
8.5k points
2 votes

Answer:

Because f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x, f and g are inverse functions.

Explanation:

f(g(x)) = f(
(1)/(4)√(x)) =
16((1)/(4)√(x) ) ^(2) = 16((1)/(16)x)=x

g(f(x)) = g
(16x^(2)) = (1)/(4)\sqrt{16x^(2) } = (1)/(4)(4x) = x

User Spliffster
by
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