Register
Asap Why were more people able to vote in the colonies than in Britain? A. Britain did not allow Puritans to vote, but the colonies did B. More women could vote in the colonies C. More men owned property
6.3k views
0 votes
Asap

Why were more people able to vote in the colonies than in Britain?

A. Britain did not allow Puritans to vote, but the colonies did

B. More women could vote in the colonies

C. More men owned property in the colonies

User Vyacheslav Lukianov
by
7.8k points

1 Answer

2 votes
I think the answer is A (Britain did not allow Puritans to vote, but the colonies did).
User Marc Cayuela
by
8.3k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.7m questions

11.4m answers

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
Link Copied!