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10 votes
Please help me with the below question.

Please help me with the below question.-example-1
User Cyclomarc
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1 Answer

16 votes
16 votes

The limit does not exist.

cos is continuous, so we have


\displaystyle \lim_(x\to0) \cos\left(\frac1x\right) = \cos\left(\lim_(x\to0) \frac1x\right)

but

• 1/x approaches +∞ as x approaches 0 from above

• 1/x approaches -∞ as x approaches 0 from below

hence the two-sided limit does not exist.

User Michelle Crane
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3.3k points