How do you do this question?

asked Feb 21, 2021 207k views

1 vote

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4 votes

Answer:

½√2

Explanation:

∑ₙ₌₀°° (-1)ⁿ π²ⁿ / (4²ⁿ (2n)!)

∑ₙ₌₀°° (-1)ⁿ (π/4)²ⁿ / (2n)!

Using the Taylor expansion for cos x:

cos (π/4)

½√2

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