47.2k views
3 votes
Given f ( x ) = sin x and g ( x ) = cos x , show that f ( g ( x ) ) = 0 . Show all your steps.

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

f (g (pi/2)=0

Explanation:

we have the following functions:

f (x)=sinx

g (x)=cosx

the first thing we must do in the case is composition of functions:

f (g (x)

By making the composition we have:

f (g (x)=sin.cos.(x)

we evaluate for x=pi/2:

f (g (pi/2)=sin.cos(.pi/2 )

=sin (0)

=0

User Jsmartfo
by
4.5k points