33.6k views
5 votes
Let A, B, and C be any sets. Show that A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C).

Can you help justify the proof

User Zrom
by
7.5k points

2 Answers

4 votes

If × denotes the Cartesian product, and if aA and bB, then (a, b) ∈ A × B.

First prove that A × (B - C) ⊆ (A × B) - (A × C):

Let aA and bB - C.

By definition of the product, (a, b) ∈ A × B.

By definition of complement, bB and bC.

So (a, b) ∈ A × B and (a, b) ∉ A × C.

By definition of complement, (a, b) ∈ (A × B) - (A × C).

Therefore, A × (B - C) ⊆ (A × B) - (A × C).

Prove the other direction, that (A × B) - (A × C) ⊆ A × (B - C):

Let (a, b) ∈ (A × B) - (A × C).

By definition complement, (a, b) ∈ (A × B) and (a, b) ∉ (A × C).

By definition of the product, aA, bB, and bC.

By definition of complement, b B - C.

By definition of the product, (a, b) ∈ A × (B - C).

Therefore, (A × B) - (A × C) ⊆ A × (B - C).

Hence the two sets are equal. QED

User Ztsv
by
6.7k points
4 votes
AB-AC=AB-AC

1. Factor the first problem into AB-AC
2. Multiply and add the second problem and you will get AB-AC
3. AB-AC is equal to AB-AC
User Robert Foss
by
6.7k points