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0 votes
I honestly have no clue

I honestly have no clue-example-1

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

I really dont know

Explanation:

2+2????

User Dana Benson
by
3.8k points
2 votes

Answer:

fourth option

Explanation:

If f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions , then

(f ○ g(x) = (g ○ f)(x) = x for all real numbers

User Mazunki
by
4.6k points