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Help please I’m so confused I’ll mark you brainless
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4 votes
Help please I’m so confused I’ll mark you brainless

Help please I’m so confused I’ll mark you brainless-example-1
User Alysha
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1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

no they are not equivalent

Explanation:

n (4n^2-1)

4n^3-n

basically you need to multiply 2n+1 and 2n-1 to get (4n^2-1) and then multiply n. in the ends. they arent equivalent

User Mbejda
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