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Armando · Answer 1 · 2021-03-16T02:43:27+0000

Answer:

no

Explanation:

because 3;2 is more the 2;3 as you know if you do it as a fraction it would be 3 over 2 and 2 over 3 the 3 over 2 whould be a whole and the 2 over 3 would be 3 forths of a whole and the 3 over 2 would be more

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