128k views
2 votes
This is due at 12 helppp

This is due at 12 helppp-example-1
User Luiscosta
by
5.6k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

n is parallel to m

Explanation:

You can't justify j and k since there is no angle touching it, but for m and n, since they are equal, it must mean the lines of m and n are parallel.

User Adam Bell
by
6.0k points